<snip>
Oh dear, that drags up a dim memory from my neglected mathematical past!Hi Bill,
Please tell me why 0!=1. I can't remember if I've forgotten or maybe I never
knew! mmm .... would that come out correctly in the ToonTalk version, must
try it?
0! is defined as 1 because:
(a) 1!=1, correct?
But also, by definition,: n!=n*(n-1)!, so
(b) 1!=1*0!
If a=b and a=c you conclude that b=c, so from (a) and (b) you come to:
(c) 1=1*0!
What you multiply by 1 to get 1? 1 of course, so it's justified to define 0! as 1.
Regards and a merry xmas,
Yehuda
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http://www.geocities.com/CollegePark/lab/2276/
e-mail: yehuka@softhome.net
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